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Investing - Theory, News & General • Re: Dividends equated with “forced sales”

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The rules covering mutual funds and ETFs are different than the rules governing corporations like Berkshire. Companies don't have to distribute earnings as dividends.
If I understood the investopedia article correctly, it's so that you don't end up getting double (or triple) taxed?

Do Berkshire profits end up getting triple-taxed? Once when Apple, for instance, declares a profit, again when Berkshire declares a profit, and again when you declare a profit?

I mean Berkshire effectively is a fund. But it's a closed-end fund, effectively. (I am completely ignorant on how holding companies would differ legally from, e.g., a closed-end ETF. They seem equivalent to me.)
I'm not sure I understand your question about declaring a profit.

I don't know all the tax ins and outs either, just that mutual funds and ETFs all pass thru their dividends. I assume that the Apple dividends that BRK receives are corporate income for the purposes of BRK filing their corporate tax return. I assume BRK manages that as best they can to minimize their corporate income tax burden.

Statistics: Posted by Da5id — Fri Jul 12, 2024 11:14 pm



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